We first prove the following lemma:
Proof: Recall the definition of
, the Dirichlet Kernel:
.
We substitute the integral form of the Fourier coefficients into the formula for
above
![{\displaystyle s_{n}(f,x)=\sum _{k=-n}^{n}c_{k}e^{ikx}=\sum _{k=-n}^{n}[{\frac {1}{2\pi }}\int _{-\pi }^{\pi }f(t)e^{-ikt}dt]e^{ikx}={\frac {1}{2\pi }}\int _{-\pi }^{\pi }f(t)\sum _{k=-n}^{n}e^{ik(x-t)}\,dt={\frac {1}{2\pi }}\int _{-\pi }^{\pi }f(t)\,D_{n}(x-t)\,dt.}](//wikimedia.org/api/rest_v1/media/math/render/svg/f66446500795c337fdc3be37053fc095896bc13b)
Using a change of variables we get

This completes the proof of Lemma 1.
We next prove the following lemma:
Lemma 2—The nth Cesaro sum
may be written using the Fejér Kernel as: 
Proof: Recall the definition of the Fejér Kernel 

As in the case of Lemma 1, we substitute the integral form of the Fourier coefficients into the formula for 
![{\displaystyle \sigma _{n}(f,x)={\frac {1}{n}}\sum _{k=0}^{n-1}s_{k}(f,x)={\frac {1}{n}}\sum _{k=0}^{n-1}{\frac {1}{2\pi }}\int _{-\pi }^{\pi }f(x-t)\,D_{k}(t)\,dt={\frac {1}{2\pi }}\int _{-\pi }^{\pi }f(x-t)\,[{\frac {1}{n}}\sum _{k=0}^{n-1}D_{k}(t)]\,dt={\frac {1}{2\pi }}\int _{-\pi }^{\pi }f(x-t)\,F_{n}(t)\,dt}](//wikimedia.org/api/rest_v1/media/math/render/svg/92a612156ef1f6b7718a6149d9b587d43177aa17)
This completes the proof of Lemma 2.
We next prove the 3rd Lemma:
Proof: a) Given that
is the mean of
, the integral of which is 1, by linearity, the integral of
is also equal to 1.
b) As
is a geometric sum, we get a simple formula for
and then for
, using De Moivre's formula:

c) For all fixed
,

This shows that the integral converges to zero, as
goes to infinity.
This completes the proof of Lemma 3.
We are now ready to prove Fejér's Theorem. First, let us recall the statement we are trying to prove

We want to find an expression for
. We begin by invoking Lemma 2:

By Lemma 3a we know that
![{\displaystyle \sigma _{n}(f,x)-f(x)={\frac {1}{2\pi }}\int _{-\pi }^{\pi }f(x-t)\,F_{n}(t)\,dt-f(x)={\frac {1}{2\pi }}\int _{-\pi }^{\pi }f(x-t)\,F_{n}(t)\,dt-f(x){\frac {1}{2\pi }}\int _{-\pi }^{\pi }F_{n}(t)\,dt={\frac {1}{2\pi }}\int _{-\pi }^{\pi }f(x)\,F_{n}(t)\,dt={\frac {1}{2\pi }}\int _{-\pi }^{\pi }[f(x-t)-f(x)]\,F_{n}(t)\,dt.}](//wikimedia.org/api/rest_v1/media/math/render/svg/db0b6b0ed79b27abdeb68777756e91b562c06b59)
Applying the triangle inequality yields
![{\displaystyle |\sigma _{n}(f,x)-f(x)|=|{\frac {1}{2\pi }}\int _{-\pi }^{\pi }[f(x-t)-f(x)]\,F_{n}(t)\,dt|\leq {\frac {1}{2\pi }}\int _{-\pi }^{\pi }|[f(x-t)-f(x)]\,F_{n}(t)|\,dt={\frac {1}{2\pi }}\int _{-\pi }^{\pi }|f(x-t)-f(x)|\,|F_{n}(t)|\,dt,}](//wikimedia.org/api/rest_v1/media/math/render/svg/53ea7f9f0bea60afbee4c4f3346c09ee780326f5)
and by Lemma 3b, we get

We now split the integral into two parts, integrating over the two regions
and
.

The motivation for doing so is that we want to prove that
. We can do this by proving that each integral above, integral 1 and integral 2, goes to zero. This is precisely what we will do in the next step.
We first note that the function
is continuous on
. We invoke the theorem that every periodic function on
that is continuous is also bounded and uniformily continuous. This means that
.
Hence we can rewrite the integral 1 as follows

Because
and 

By Lemma 3a we then get for all n

This gives the desired bound for integral 1 which we can exploit in final step.
For integral 2, we note that since
is bounded, we can write this bound as 

We are now ready to prove that
. We begin by writing

Thus,

By Lemma 3c we know that the integral goes to 0 as
goes to infinity, and because epsilon is arbitrary, we can set it equal to 0. Hence
, which completes the proof.