Talk:Bell's theorem/Archive 7

From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Archive 1Archive 5Archive 6Archive 7Archive 8Archive 9Archive 10

What is an example of an "impossibility proof" that Bell mentioned?

I don't know many "impossibility proofs" One I do know involves simple plane geometry: "It is impossible to trisect an angle using only a compass and a straight edge." The proof is that only linear and quadratic (but not cubic) operations are possible using these simple tools.

I think there should either be a link to another section on such proofs, or else reference specific examples of the kinds of impossibility proofs that betray a "lack of imagination".  Preceding unsigned comment added by Danshawen (talkcontribs) 15:29, 23 April 2014 (UTC)

The article has a link to (freely available) Bell's text [16]. There, on pages 2-3, Bell mentions impossibility proofs in [3], [4], [7]-[14]. See these sources, according to his References. On Wikipedia, see Kochen–Specker theorem and John Stewart Bell#Bell's critique of von Neumann's proof. Boris Tsirelson (talk) 18:17, 23 April 2014 (UTC)

A quote about (in)determinism

"In summary, I think it’s fair to say that physical indeterminism is now a settled fact to roughly the same extent as evolution, heliocentrism, or any other discovery in science. So if that fact is considered relevant to the free-will debate, then all sides might as well just accept it and move on!"

(Scott Aaronson "The Ghost in the Quantum Turing Machine", page 23)

Boris Tsirelson (talk) 06:29, 28 April 2014 (UTC)

Freedom

The article currently says, 'Freedom refers not to the philosophical concept of free will but to the physical possibility to determine settings on measurement devices independently of the internal state of the physical system being measured'.

Can someone explain exactly what this statement means. In particular, what is meant by 'the internal state of the physical system'? Does this refer to the values of the presumed hidden variables? Martin Hogbin (talk) 09:39, 29 January 2014 (UTC)

Yes. For more details: Freedom = no-conspiracy, see Boris Tsirelson's article on entanglement on Citizendium, . Or read my article "Statistics, causality, and Bell's theorem", . I use the *consequence* of the assumption, that when an experimenter chooses settings of a measurement device by tossing coins, then those coin toss outcomes are statistically independent of the counterfactual outcomes of each possible measurement. Richard Gill (talk) 11:57, 1 February 2014 (UTC)
See also Free will theorem. Richard Gill (talk) 12:07, 1 February 2014 (UTC)
I cannot find a clear description of what 'no-conspiracy' means anywhere. Martin Hogbin (talk) 14:23, 1 February 2014 (UTC)
Boris and I have done our best, but not succeeded. Maybe you need to study a whole lot more physics and philosophy of physics before you can begin to appreciate what we are on about? It is rather subtle. I have been working intensively on Bell's theorem and all that for 20 years now. The longer I studied it, the more I learnt that it is impossible to explain to outsiders in a few sentences what is going on.
Von Neumann said that anyone who claims to understand quantum physics clearly doesn't. This is very very true. Only after you have studied it deeply enough to truly understand that it is un-understandable, can you begin to appreciate the significance of the various quantum paradoxes. The reason for this is quite simple: quantum physics violates the basic understanding of the world which is hard-wired (by evolution) in our brains. So far we didn't need it.
But surely you do understand what it means to suppose that the outcomes of coin tosses (used to determine measurement settings) are statistically independent of all those hidden variables which determine what the outcome of the measurement will be, given each possible setting? Richard Gill (talk) 18:24, 1 February 2014 (UTC)
Sorry for being a bit not nice, but I guess that Martin will say (again) that under absolute determinism there is no randomness at all and therefore "statistically independent" means nothing.
I only wonder, what is his attitude to the fact of (seemingly) statistical behavior of coins tossed (and many other objects)? He never told us. He always did something else. Boris Tsirelson (talk) 21:06, 1 February 2014 (UTC)
Yes Boris you are quite right that I would say something along the lines you state but I think we have all agreed that absolute determinism does not falsify Bell's theorem. Please do say if either of you do not agree with this.
I have now moved on to asking exactly what is meant by 'freedom' and 'no-conspiracy'. Freedom, as far as I can see, is intended to replace the philosophical and ill-defined term 'free will' with a more objective and well-defined term. I have my doubts that it succeeds is doing this and I am asking you to tell me in some clear way exactly what 'freedom' means. The use of the term 'no-conspiracy' does not, in my opinion help. It is a term that seems to be intrinsically based on human emotion.
Regarding your coin tossing question, I think that it leads to a circular argument if used regarding Bell's theorem. If we assume that a local classical theory of physics is possible the tossing of a coin is deterministic. Tossing it in exactly the same way will always produce the same result. If, on the other hand, we assume that there is some inherent and fundamental randomness in the process due to QM then we have already abandoned classical physics. Martin Hogbin (talk) 21:53, 1 February 2014 (UTC)
No! This is the root of our absence of mutual understanding during the long time! As I wrote many times, randomness and determinism coexist in classical physics in full harmony! This fact is very important for physics. You cannot just ignore it when discussing physics. The chaotic motion of atoms acts like a huge Pseudorandom number generator. Its outcomes are fixed beforehand, but if you do not know them beforehand you never discover a statistically significant deviation of randomness. Think on this seriously. If this big obstacle will disappear, our discussion will be much more smooth and (hopefully) successful. Boris Tsirelson (talk) 06:52, 2 February 2014 (UTC)
But pseudorandom numbers are not random numbers. The WP article on the subject starts [my italics], 'A pseudorandom process is a process that appears to be random but is not. Pseudorandom sequences typically exhibit statistical randomness while being generated by an entirely deterministic causal process'.
I fully appreciate that psuedorandom processes may exhibit many of the properties of a random process and may, for example, be arbitrarily sensitive to initial conditions but the outcome of such processes can, in principle, be calculated even if such a calculation is currently impossible or would require exact knowledge of the initial conditions.
I would even accept that there is an interesting philosophical discussion to be had here over the difference between something that is likely to be forever incalculable and something which is fundamentally unknowable but the WP article shows that there is not a clear consensus that you are right. Martin Hogbin (talk) 09:51, 2 February 2014 (UTC)
Who says that pseudorandom numbers are random numbers?? Me?? Not at all. Never. They are not. And this is very good! For this reason they are compatible with deterministic classical mechanics. Boris Tsirelson (talk) 12:00, 2 February 2014 (UTC)
OK, I misunderstood you. We agree that pseudorandom and random are not the same. I think we also agree that true randomness is hard to find when hidden in pseudorandomness. Am I right about that?
Yes. --Boris
What I do not understand is what you mean by 'freedom' and 'conspiracy'. I do not even understand what kind of concepts they are. Are the philosophical concepts like free will, in other words things that can never be subject to the scientific method?
Are they measurable quantities? Martin Hogbin (talk) 13:51, 2 February 2014 (UTC)
Not philosophical. Yes, subject to the scientific method. Measurable, with some reservations. "Freedom" (as used by Richard) means exactly "no conspiracy" (as used by me and some others). Here is a quote from my Citizendium article:
"However, is the result really unpredictable in principle (not just in practice)? Not necessarily so. Moreover, according to classical mechanics, the future is uniquely determined by the past! In particular, the result of the coin tossing exists in the past as a complicated function of a huge number of coordinates and momenta of micro particles.
It is logically possible, but quite unbelievable that the future result of coin tossing is somehow spontaneously singled out in the microscopic chaos and transmitted to the apparatus B in order to influence yB. The no-conspiracy assumption claims that such exotic scenarios may be safely neglected."
Boris Tsirelson (talk) 14:12, 2 February 2014 (UTC)
You say, 'It is logically possible, but quite unbelievable...'. I do not understand how unbelievabilty can be considered measurable. Is there some mathematical measure of believability or does that just represent your personal opinion about how nature should be? Martin Hogbin (talk) 14:44, 2 February 2014 (UTC)
Tastes differ. Beliefs differ. Only logic... no, logics also differ (classical and intuitionistic, for instance). What can I say? Still, people manage to communicate. Somehow. Sometimes. Yes, it just represents my personal opinion about how nature should be. So what? Do you think it is possible to make physics (or any science) on the basis of logic only? If you do, read Feynman's The Character of Physical Law. This my personal opinion is shared by quite many. But I understand that maybe the opposite opinion is shared by even more people. In fact it was my old proposal: to present the controversy to the reader and let him/her decide, which opinion to share. WP articles on politics typically represent opposite opinions with some comments. Your personal opinion is as personal as mine. Boris Tsirelson (talk) 15:14, 2 February 2014 (UTC)
But for now this is not the point. You ask what do we call "freedom". I answer. Whether we (me, you, ...) consider it believable or not is a separate question. Boris Tsirelson (talk) 15:39, 2 February 2014 (UTC)
I do not necessarily even disagree with you. Human laws of physics are, to some degree, what we want them to be. I too would find it hard to believe in some apparent conspiracy of nature to confound an experiment. On the other hand I would find it hard to say what exactly would constitute a conspiracy or, as Richard would call it a lack of freedom. I do not think that non-conspiracy is any less of a philosophical concept than free will.
What I might consider a conspiracy you might not. Also, what might appear to be a conspiracy to both of us might turn out to have some simple explanation when viewed in the right light. Martin Hogbin (talk) 18:09, 2 February 2014 (UTC)
In the same way that randomness might be hidden behind pseudo randomness, non-conspiratoral complexity might be hidden behind presumed conspiracy. Martin Hogbin (talk) 18:16, 2 February 2014 (UTC)

Well... you may hope on such scenarios of the future of physics... But as for now, the following fact (copied from Richard's message a lot above, modified by me) should find its place in the article:

while two logical possibilities, non-locality and non-realism, correspond to well-developed interpretations of quantum mechanics, and have many supporters, this is not the case for the third logical possibility, non-freedom.

Boris Tsirelson (talk) 20:25, 2 February 2014 (UTC)

I would support that proposal. We might also perhaps mention free will which might be regarded as the more traditional third possibility. Martin Hogbin (talk) 21:05, 2 February 2014 (UTC)
OK, I got bold and did the change, in the hope that Richard will not be disturbed by his own words, even if somewhat modified. About free will I feel very unsure, just because different people interpret it very differently. (I recall a note that free will contradicts both determinism and randomness...) Boris Tsirelson (talk) 21:36, 2 February 2014 (UTC)
That is all fine with me. If Richard wants to change the wording a little that would be fine also. I am not going to fight over free will. Richard, what is your view on this? Martin Hogbin (talk) 00:22, 3 February 2014 (UTC)
I am not fighting about free will. I would like to show you here some slides of a recent talk by someone I admire: Klaas Landsman. http://www.math.leidenuniv.nl/~gill/Klaas_Landsman_Bell_talk.pdf Richard Gill (talk) 11:45, 15 February 2014 (UTC)
An interesting paper but I am very suspicious of the concept of freedom. It seems to me just to be a restatement of Bell's theorem itself. Martin Hogbin (talk) 17:30, 17 February 2014 (UTC)
Which paper? Anyway: all there is, is one or two very simple mathematical results, which can be dressed up as (mathematical) "theorems" if you like (tautologies), and there is the interpretation of what these might mean for physics and for the understanding of quantum physics and for metaphysics ... and so we get into a vast territory, where there are no "theorems", only opinions, experience, matters of taste, culture ... and if you want to leave physics altogether and get "purely" into philosophy, then I'm afraid you'll be spending most of your time trying to figure out what words mean, and what it means to say a word means something, and so on ad infinitum. Good luck.
Einstein: "As far as the laws of mathematics refer to reality, they are not certain; as far as they are certain, they do not refer to reality." Richard Gill (talk) 19:38, 19 February 2014 (UTC)
(Rather off-topic; and edit conflict) My brother, a much more humanitarian person than me, told me: you mathematicians (seemingly) use words, and nevertheless do not depend on the (natural) language. Boris Tsirelson (talk) 19:58, 19 February 2014 (UTC)
What makes you think that I want to leave physics? Martin Hogbin (talk) 19:52, 19 February 2014 (UTC)
I really do not believe the "Freedom" assumption belongs in top section of Bell's Theorem along with the other two. First, it actually has absolutely nothing to do with Bell's Theorem specifically. It could be applied (as a hidden assumption) to virtually any quantum (or other for that matter) experiment ever performed. Second, it completely waters down the Bell paper, which of course does not mention it at all. Anyone who reads the paper after reading the Wikipedia article will be quite confused. Third, it is a relatively new area of discussion which would be better served placed in a different section. Yes, it is true that Bell mentioned it himself in talks. However, I don't think he or most anyone took it seriously until 't Hooft started writing about it. So it really relates more to the viewpoint of 't Hooft and his "Cellular Automata" interpretation of QM. There are a number of interpretations of QM which attempt to address Bell. Each interpretation makes an assumption of some type, and each of those do not deserve equal footing with "locality" and "realism" in a discussion of Bell. (Time Symmetry/Asymmetry is such an example.) As a point of reference, the Stanford/Plato discussion (updated 2009) does not mention Freedom (or Superdeterminism) as a Bell assumption. So I propose that Freedom be demoted. DrChinese (talk) 22:27, 12 May 2014 (UTC)
Rather convincing. Boris Tsirelson (talk) 05:23, 13 May 2014 (UTC)
As a non-expert I tend to agree too. These rather philosophical concepts are rather like mirages in that when you try to define exactly what you mean, you just move on to another concept that needs explanation. Martin Hogbin (talk) 08:21, 13 May 2014 (UTC)
Thanks for your comments/feedback. I will do some drafting on it and post the edit in a few days. Richard Gill and I have spoken in the past about the Bell page, and how to best fend off those who have used this page to dilute the main topic. (Several of us had a go of it with one of Joy Christian's followers a couple of years ago who wanted Christian's work to be featured here.) DrChinese (talk) 22:09, 13 May 2014 (UTC)

Some sources for improving the article

I'm not familiar enough with the concept to dare edit the article, but I think the claims in doi:10.1038/510467a should be given some space. In particular that Bell revised his own theorem in 1976 (Bell, J. S. Epistemol. Lett. 9, 11–24 (1976)) and that localists argue the 1964 formulation while non-localists argue the 1976 formulation.

Yes, thank you, I agree that this is worth mentioning. Let me think... Boris Tsirelson (talk) 19:51, 22 July 2014 (UTC)

After reading Wiseman's article I'd say, its message is that Bell did not really revise his own theorem in 1976. Bell's "beables" in the common past are the hidden variables. True, they need not uniquely determine the future event, but they do so up to a local randomization, which is well-known to lead to the same Bell inequalities.

From the section "Reconciling the camps" of Wiseman's article:

Thus Bell's 1976 theorem can be restated as: either causal influences are not limited to the speed of light, or events can be correlated for no reason. [...] It enables them to agree on a single Bell's theorem, and what logical options it offers, even if they prefer different options.

These two options are: reject the "locality", or reject the "realism" (in terms of our article). The third option, rejection of "freedom", is mentioned in the last section "The path forward" of Wiseman's article:

the only things correlated with free choices are their effects...

In fact, the three options were discussed in "An exchange on local beables" (by J.Bell, A.Shimony, M.Horne, J.Clauser), "Epistemological Letters" 1976-1978, reprinted in: "Dialectica" 39:2, 85-110 (1985).

Boris Tsirelson (talk) 06:41, 23 July 2014 (UTC)

Two more quotes from Wiseman could interest us. From the first paragraph:

The first [option] is that reality is irreducibly random ... The second option is that reality is 'non-local' ... Most physicists are localists: they recognize the two options but choose the first ...

From the section "Another theorem":

Bell himself was a non-localist ...

Boris Tsirelson (talk) 08:35, 23 July 2014 (UTC)

What is called correlations

To Jochen Burghardt and Arthur Rubin: isn't it better to first discuss the matter here rather than edit forth and back? Boris Tsirelson (talk) 07:19, 7 January 2015 (UTC)

Probably you're right - I didn't expect the issue to be that much complicated. Also, I can't help much in answering questions, as I'm not a physicist, but just a mathematician who wants to understand the article. Arthur Rubin is right in that the caption of File:Bell's theorem.svg explicitly mentions "spin-half". On the other hand, section Bell's_theorem#CHSH inequality speaks about "binary (+/-1 valued) outcomes". Maybe, the "outcome" is a normalized (i.e. scaled by 2 in our case) version of the measured "spin"? As another suggestion, the easiest way to obtain consistency might be to stick with the statistical notion of correlation, unless this is absolutely unusual in quantum physics. - Jochen Burghardt (talk) 18:15, 7 January 2015 (UTC)
I do not think it is complicated (and I am a kind of expert in it). Artur Rubin is right if the spin is treated as mechanical (the angular momentum); in this sense it is really neither 1 nor 1/2 but (plus-minus) a half of the Planck constant. But! This mechanics is rather irrelevant. Here the spin is treated informationally, as just a yes-no observable, encoded (for convenience) as plus-minus 1. (And by the way, the Stern–Gerlach experiment gives just this: splits the electron beam in two beams, without indicating "plus-minus how much" is it, really.)
About the statistical notion of correlation: the quantum calculation in the singlet state shows that the average spins (the expectations) are zero, and therefore there is no conflict between the two "correlations". However, when discussing Bell inequalities, it is usual indeed to call "correlations" the expected product in every case, whether or not the expectations are zero. Boris Tsirelson (talk) 19:14, 7 January 2015 (UTC)

Section "Two classes of Bell inequalities" is too technical

This section departs from the previous sections by suddenly being full of unexplained technical terms such as "fair sampling", "inhomogeneous", "homogeneous", "dark rate", "dead time", "resolving times".

Nobody needed to perform the experiment, because singles rates with all detectors in the 1970s were at least ten times all the coincidence rates.

Does this mean, performing the experiment would have been futile or inconclusive? The sentence uses irony where declaration would be clearer. I would correct it myself, but I can't be sure of my interpretation.

(I also don't understand why this factor of ten even matters or what it means here, but this is only one of many things that are unclear in this section.)

178.38.79.96 (talk) 07:34, 12 April 2015 (UTC)

Psychological Aspects

This article makes no mention of the psychology of the observers. Such factors as memory, subjectivity, and interpretation influence the results that each observer perceives and what they can agree on. Even without a many-worlds interpretation, each observer only perceives part of the entire reality. Which part they perceive affects the correlation.  Preceding unsigned comment added by 153.203.90.130 (talk) 20:05, 23 March 2015 (UTC)

I hope it depends strictly on the mathematics of tensor products and projection operators, and not on literary constructions. Otherwise I have no chance of understanding this gadget ! 178.38.79.96 (talk) 07:44, 12 April 2015 (UTC)

Unclear on the intuition of some text

The article reads,

"Suppose the two particles are perfectly anti-correlated—in the sense that whenever both measured in the same direction, one gets identically opposite outcomes, when both measured in opposite directions they always give the same outcome. The only way to imagine how this works is that both particles leave their common source with, somehow, the outcomes they will deliver when measured in any possible direction. (How else could particle 1 know how to deliver the same answer as particle 2 when measured in the same direction? They don't know in advance how they are going to be measured...)."

The above is an unsourced (perhaps OR) intuitive argument the intuition of which dose not jibe with my own understanding.

The particles in question are photons which are observed. Thus, they are photons that have been both emitted and absorbed. When a photon is emitted and absorbed, it has traveled at the speed of light and, from the photon's perspective, the emission and absorption have happened simultaneously, coupling and conserving mass-energy and spin angular momentum from the emitter to the absorber.

Similarly when a pair of entangled photons is emitted and absorbed, the emission event, and the two absorption events happen simultaneously, again from the photons' perspective, and again conserving spin angular momentum. So the photon does not have to "know" what these angular momenta are while in transit, as from the photon's perspective, the entire coupling event has happened in a single instant, is a single event and there was no concept of being "in transit".

The fact that the two distantly separated absorbers are measured as not being co-located, by some observer, who is neither of the photons, is explained because that's how special relativity works. In different frames you measure different distances and times. The coupling must make sense from the frame of the force-coupling carrier(s), but not from anybody else's frame. So there is no FTL communications paradox, at least not in this example involving photons in a vacuum.

Spope3 (talk) 06:03, 7 May 2015 (UTC)

Maybe. But the effect is the same on electrons and even heavy ions, that are far not massless. That "the emission and absorption have happened simultaneously" is itself not a well-established point of view. Moreover, bare photons are massless but do not exist in reality. Dressed photons are not quite massless because electron-positron virtual pairs matter. Boris Tsirelson (talk) 07:16, 7 May 2015 (UTC)

== (Reply to Boris re. "unclear intuition")

I have two points here:

1) Although the effect "is the same" for electrons and heavy ions, the article makes it clear that the most serious experimental results come from studying the behavior of photons. So it is at this point speculative to say that similar results hold for electrons (although I personally believe they do).

2) It is true that all real-world photons behave as dressed photons. But I'm not sure this means undressed photons don't exist, to me it means that a perfect vacuum does not exist, at least in our section of the universe/multiverse. So a photon might scatter off particles other than its Bell-experiment target (including virtual particles, and this effect can be translated into a mass expression for a dressed photon, but if this happens the Bell-experiment outcome is different whether or not one leans towards my point of view or the article's statements.  Preceding unsigned comment added by Spope3 (talkcontribs) 02:02, 8 May 2015 (UTC)

Looking at recent work from the Hanson group in Delft I see that a Bell test experiment is presently underway using electrons in diamonds. "Entanglement swapping" uses entangled photons to create entanglement between electrons in widely separated in locations in imperfections in carbon crystals (diamonds). Replace one carbon atom with a nitrogen atom and you have an addressable electron. Take a look at http://hansonlab.tudelft.nl/publications/ and at http://www.tudelft.nl/en/current/latest-news/article/detail/beam-me-up-data/ Richard Gill (talk) 16:43, 4 August 2015 (UTC)

I'm probably missing something, but your Bell's inequality seems wrong

From http://www.drchinese.com/David/Bell_Compact.pdf I have:

Replacing B by c, C by b, and A by a:

It seems you are missing the absolute value sign.--Guy vandegrift (talk) 04:03, 6 September 2015 (UTC)

On one hand, that is all the same. From it follows that also and therefore
On the other hand, indeed, the absolute value appears in Bell's original text, equation (15) there; why not do the same in this article? Boris Tsirelson (talk) 19:15, 6 September 2015 (UTC)
Anyway, Mermin's form is rather that is, Boris Tsirelson (talk) 19:37, 6 September 2015 (UTC)
Since you don't need the minus sign, you removed it. But removing the absolute value sign weakens the result and also confuses the reader who is looking for it. Before I read a paper, I scan the equations to see what the paper is about. Removing the minus sign interferes with that initial assessment of whether or not I need to read the article. BTW, I am drafting a simple derivation on Wikiversity at v:Bell's theorem/Guy vandegrift. You are welcome to join in.--Guy vandegrift (talk) 09:28, 7 September 2015 (UTC)
The inequality with absolute value sign is two inequalities, depending on whether the thing we take the absolute value of is positive or negative. Those two inequalities are actually (from a mathematician's point of view) the same inequality - prove one, and you have proved the other too, by symmetry. The inequality without the absolute value sign is the one which you need to understand and it is the one with the simplest proof. But actually the CHSH inequality is just as simple to prove and it implies Bell's original and it is the one actually used in experiments. So I recommend you look for a simple proof of CHSH. We know that this inequality is very fundamental, for instance from Fine's theorem which says that one can come up with a local hidden variables model for an experiment with two parties, each with two settings, for measurements each with two outcomes, if and only if the probabilities P(A, B| a, b) satisfy all 8 CHSH inequalities (apply the obvious symmetries to transform one CHSH inequality into others). My favourite proof is the one on my slide 7 of my slides http://www.slideshare.net/gill1109/epidemiology-meets-quantum-statistics-causality-and-bells-theorem Richard Gill (talk) 19:47, 7 September 2015 (UTC)
Wow, that was easy! I will use it at Wikiversity:Bell's theorem/Inequality (but not till Thanksgiving when I have another few days to do as I please).--Guy vandegrift (talk) 03:47, 8 September 2015 (UTC)
No, thanks, I do not join in, for two reasons. First, I already did my best elsewhere. Second, one may write down a lot of various necessary conditions, but they are at best of historical interest, since we know the necessary and sufficient conditions: Bell-CHSH inequalities. All necessary conditions follow from Bell-CHSH. Boris Tsirelson (talk) 10:45, 7 September 2015 (UTC)
I will look at your website. FYI - I just found an extremely simple proof in a textbook by Griffiths. http://www.physics.umd.edu/courses/Phys270/Jenkins/Griffiths_EPR_BellInequality_Excerpt.pdf --Guy vandegrift (talk) 16:37, 7 September 2015 (UTC)
Your link seems not to work. Martin Hogbin (talk) 17:14, 7 September 2015 (UTC)
Try the link now. I had the signature touching the file: ..._Excerpt.pdf--(signature)--Guy vandegrift (talk) 03:17, 8 September 2015 (UTC)

I created a category in Commons, not knowing exactly what I was doing. When I went to put a sister link here, I discovered that you already have one. I presume that you don't want two such links and I presume this is resolved by using subcategories at Commons. I will post the question on commons and place a link here so you can verify the status. If anybody knows how commons does categories, let me know. You may remove the link to the Bell's theorem category if you wish (obviously). See this post on commons.--Guy vandegrift (talk) 23:04, 15 September 2015 (UTC)

The category on commons seems OK. See c:Category:Bell's theorem. You can add or not add. I will move on to other projects. --Guy vandegrift (talk) 01:26, 16 September 2015 (UTC)

Delete new section "Alternative Analysis"?

Untitled

Untitled

Related Articles

Wikiwand AI