Talk:Science/Archive 9
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First attempts at a rational understanding of nature
As the source cited in the lede (Lindberg) makes clear (and a multitude of sources do as well), it is in classical Greece that the very first explanations of the natural world that do not involve the supernatural (i.e. rational) appear. Specifically, with the Milesians in the 6th century BC. There is a clear break with earlier civilizations in Egypt and Mesopotamia. It is thus not enough to say "a more naturalistic" understanding of nature, as it implies the earlier civilization also made such attempts. However there is no evidence of that. Khirurg (talk) 01:50, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- @Khirurg: Fair enough. But to claim that the Ancient Greeks were the first to be "rational" whereas the Ancient Egyptians and Mesopotamians didn't try, is an overstatement that goes beyond what the two sources actually say. Plus, I'm not aware of any historical sources that would use the term *rational* to mean "not involve *supernatural*." In fact, by the standards of science today, many of the Greek's non-supernatural ideas would be considered irrational. Plus, Greek Mythology still continued to exists. In fact, if you were to take a gander at p. 8 of the Grant source [], he states the following:
- "There can be no doubt that this was a monumental change of outlook. It was a new approach that was added to the mythological explanations of the world that had characterized earlier Greek descriptions of physical phenomena by the likes of Hesiod and Homer. Pre-socratics no longer explained natural phenomena, such as earthquakes, lightning, storms, and eclipses, as the actions of happy and angry gods, but as the actions of natural forces that regularly produced such effects."
- I would be satisfied with deleting or changing the word "more" in favor of naturalistic or "entirely naturalistic (as written on p. 27 of Lindberg)," which is still consistent with the source and is actually the word used. But to claim that one was trying to be rational while the other wasn't, that is just not supported by the sources. danielkueh (talk) 02:10, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- I've seen "rational" used in this context in sources before. Regarding "naturalistic", I think many of our readers, especially younger ones, will not now what this means. How about "non-supernatural"? Khirurg (talk) 02:24, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- @Khirurg:, I too have seen the term used that way, but in atheistic and anti-theist literature, which brings up POV issues. I'm looking at Webster's [] for how the term is generally used and I don't see it being defined that way. Hence, we should avoid doing so. As to your suggestion, non-supernatural is ok but it is neither here nor there. Describing and explaining things in terms of numbers and equations could be an example of non-supernational but it doesn't quite capture the attempt to explain things in terms of natural causes. Hence, my preference for the term entirely naturalistic. And if certain readers don't understand it, this can be turned into a learning opportunity for them by adding a wikilink. danielkueh (talk) 02:38, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- I've seen "rational" used in this context in sources before. Regarding "naturalistic", I think many of our readers, especially younger ones, will not now what this means. How about "non-supernatural"? Khirurg (talk) 02:24, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- Ok fair enough, but how about just "naturalistic" instead of "entirely naturalistic"? There is no record of previous, even partially naturalistic explanations, unless I am mistaken. Khirurg (talk) 02:43, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- @Khirurg:, I now prefer the phrase "entirely naturalistic" over just "naturalistic" for three reasons. First, it is the phrase used by Lindberg (p. 27), so it is faithful to the source. Second, in the other source, Grant describes the understandings or explanations of the Mesopotamians as an "interplay between natural and supernatural explanations of observed effects in the physical world.. (p. 6 of [], click on the book to preview its contents)" and he provides several examples of this. All the pre-Socratic Greeks did was to remove the supernatural explanations to provide an "entirely naturalistic" explanation. Finally, before the arrival of the pre-Socratics, the Greeks still resorted to supernatural explanations, which Grant documents as follows on p. 8:
- "Consequently, although "the idea of the divine often figures in their cosmologies, the supernatural plays no part in their explanations."
- There can be no doubt that this was a monumental change of outlook. It was a new approach that was added to the mythological explanations of the world that had characterized earlier Greek descriptions of physical phenomena by the likes of Hesiod and Homer. Pre-socratics no longer explained natural phenomena, such as earthquakes, lightning, storms, and eclipses, as the actions of happy and angry gods, but as the actions of natural forces that regularly produced such effects. Thus, Thales of Miletus, who is regarded as the first of the Greek investigators into nature, is said to have declared that "the world is help up by water and rides like a ship, and when it is said to 'quake' it is actually rocking because of the water's movement. Rather than attribute earthquake to Poseidon, god of the sea, as Greeks had done for centuries, Thales chose to give a natural explanation, as did all the Pre-Socratics who followed him."
- danielkueh (talk) 03:08, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- @Khirurg:, I now prefer the phrase "entirely naturalistic" over just "naturalistic" for three reasons. First, it is the phrase used by Lindberg (p. 27), so it is faithful to the source. Second, in the other source, Grant describes the understandings or explanations of the Mesopotamians as an "interplay between natural and supernatural explanations of observed effects in the physical world.. (p. 6 of [], click on the book to preview its contents)" and he provides several examples of this. All the pre-Socratic Greeks did was to remove the supernatural explanations to provide an "entirely naturalistic" explanation. Finally, before the arrival of the pre-Socratics, the Greeks still resorted to supernatural explanations, which Grant documents as follows on p. 8:
- Ok fair enough, but how about just "naturalistic" instead of "entirely naturalistic"? There is no record of previous, even partially naturalistic explanations, unless I am mistaken. Khirurg (talk) 02:43, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- Disagree. On page 3 Grant clearly states Egyptians and Mesopotamians viewed the world as a place where magic was essential for survival. It was used to explain virtually all the phenomena we would regard as natural. I've tried to meet you halfway, I would like some reciprocity. Khirurg (talk) 03:47, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- @Khirurg:, not a contradiction. All he is saying is that they believed magic plays an important role and could explain phenomena that “we,” meaning modern science, now considers to occur purely naturally. But it’s still an interplay. danielkueh (talk) 04:16, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- And again on page 6, Grant states ...the Egyptians and Mesopotamians were heavily reliant on explanations rooted in magic, mythology, or the supernatural. Regarding the "interplay" you mention, Grant is referring to the Greeks, not the Mesopotamians: "The interplay between natural and supernatural explanations of observed effects in the natural world took a dramatic turn around 600 BC, when the Greeks appeared on the scene." It's not entirely clear what he means, but it does not suggest to me that the Egyptians and Mesopotamians had natural explanations (in which case he would be contradicting himself). Besides, both sources show supernatural explanations were still common in ancient Greece. What was novel were the non-supernatural explanations. Khirurg (talk) 03:54, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- @Khirurg:, I agree it wouldn’t be entirely clear if you were to take an all-or-none approach. But historical events are rarely neat like that. It’s a little more nuanced. The Ancient Egyptians and Mesopotamians relied *heavily* on supernatural explanations, which is not the same as “entirely” reliant. I concede that the pre-Socratics passed the threshold in the other direction but even then, “world rides on water like a ship?” Come on, man. danielkueh (talk) 04:16, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- Look, Grant says the Egyptians and Mesopotamians relied on supernatural explanations for virtually all phenomena. Second, what's the difference between a "naturalistic" explanation and an "entirely naturalistic" explanation? Is "all is water" a naturalistic or "entirely naturalistic" explanation? To me the "entirely" is needless verbosity (in an already long and verbose sentence). This is the lede of the article, it is not a place for capturing every nuance and detail, but rather one for conciseness. Khirurg (talk) 04:27, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- @Khirurg:, I agree it wouldn’t be entirely clear if you were to take an all-or-none approach. But historical events are rarely neat like that. It’s a little more nuanced. The Ancient Egyptians and Mesopotamians relied *heavily* on supernatural explanations, which is not the same as “entirely” reliant. I concede that the pre-Socratics passed the threshold in the other direction but even then, “world rides on water like a ship?” Come on, man. danielkueh (talk) 04:16, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- Disagree. On page 3 Grant clearly states Egyptians and Mesopotamians viewed the world as a place where magic was essential for survival. It was used to explain virtually all the phenomena we would regard as natural. I've tried to meet you halfway, I would like some reciprocity. Khirurg (talk) 03:47, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
@Khirurg:, to your first point, looking at that statement alone would be to take it out of context while completely disregarding "practical interest in the physical world that manifested itself primarily in the areas of astronomy, mathematics, and medicine (p. 2 of Grant)." Lindberg mentions something similar. For example, on p. 18, he talks about diseases (natural) as being the result of invasion by evil spirits (supernatural). There are several issues here with our discussion. It is too focused on an imaginary "hard break" between the Ancient Egyptians and Mesopotamians on the one end and the Ancient Greeks on the other, which doesn't exist and frankly is not quite relevant. What's relevant is what is novel about the Greek natural philosophy that began around 600 BC? A look at a simplified timeline as follows might clear it up:
- 3500 BC onwards in Mesopotamia: No distinction between supernatural and natural. It was very much a "fusion" of the two.
- Before 600 BC in Ancient Greece: Mainly supernatural as it appeals to Greek Mythology
- 600 BC onwards: Entirely natural explanations. The Greek gods were still there but their role was not included in the pre-Socratics' explanations.
Thus, it is a gradual transition. To your second point, you're now presenting a moving target by appealing to concision. I'm all about concision but not at the expense of accuracy and/or involving sloppy language. And certainly not when it is at variance with the sources. danielkueh (talk) 05:03, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- Well, in your above post it is basically you who is stating there is a "hard break", this time between pre 600 BC Greece and post 600 BC. There are millennia between Mesopotamia and Egypt and the Milesians, and I see no evidence of continuity or a gradual transition. Second, can you please elaborate on the difference between a "naturalistic" explanation and an "entirely naturalistic" explanation? Khirurg (talk) 05:12, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- @Khirurg: First, please read my post carefully. I said the hard break between the Mesopotamians and Ancient Greeks does not exist. Plus, the Greeks themselves continued to appeal to their own mythologies to explain the workings of the world, right up until around 600 BC with the arrival of Thales. If you don't see the continuity in knowledge and understand how it evolved over time from the Ancient Egyptians and Mesopotamians to the pre-Socratic of Ancient Greece, then you haven't read the sources (and others like them) in their entirety. Because if you have, you would see multiple statements such as this: "I have said enough about creation myths in the preceding section to reveal key features of Egyptian and Mesopotamian cosmogony (concerned with the origins of the universe) and cosmology (concerned with the structure of the universe). Here I will restrict myself to the Egyptians and Mesopotamian contributions to several other disciplines that subsequently found a place within Greek and medieval European science: mathematics, astronomy, and medicine. (p. 12 of Lindberg)"
- Second, I'm done elaborating. If you really want to know, you just have to take the time read and understand the sources by Grant and Lindberg in their entirety. I have already explained and presented in great detail several passages from sources that can be verified by anyone reading this thread. In fact, I have both books (among others) right in front of me. Plus, it's not clear at this moment what the remaining objections are. Finally, the burden of proof is not on me but on you to justify why we should not use the terms that are explicitly used and explained by the authors (Grant and Lindberg) of these two sources. danielkueh (talk) 05:42, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- Well, in your above post it is basically you who is stating there is a "hard break", this time between pre 600 BC Greece and post 600 BC. There are millennia between Mesopotamia and Egypt and the Milesians, and I see no evidence of continuity or a gradual transition. Second, can you please elaborate on the difference between a "naturalistic" explanation and an "entirely naturalistic" explanation? Khirurg (talk) 05:12, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- I did read both sources. And I see very little evidence of any sort of naturalistic explanations of the world in both Egyptian and Mesopotamian "science". Specifically page 3 in Grant "Egyptians and Mesopotamians viewed the world as a place where magic was essential for survival. It was used to explain virtually all the phenomena we would regard as natural." You are nitpicking and reading way too much into passages that are vague (e.g. the "interplay" sentence). Based on these sources, it is not inaccurate to say "the first naturalistic explanations of the world appear in 600 BC". As for moving targets, I would like to remind you that at first you were fine with "naturalistic" but now insist on "entirely naturalistic". Khirurg (talk) 05:49, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
@Khirurg:. Well, if you did read those books carefully AND in their entirety, you won't be:A) still harping about the Ancient Egyptians and Mesopotamians, which are irrelevant to this discussion.B) committing to the same error about the timeline. It is not Ancient Egyptians and Mesopotamians --> pre-socratics. Rather, it is Ancient Egyptians and Mesopotamians --> before pre-Socratics, i.e., Homer and Hesiod --> pre-Socratics. Thus, the key distinction here is not between the Mesopotamians and the Ancient Greeks. It is the distinction between Greeks before 600 BC and those after. Bonus points if you can tell me when the "clear distinction between the natural and the supernatural was emerging."
With respect to your accusations about me "nitpicking" and "overreading," with are hardly serious arguments, let me remind you that I've been contributing to Wikipedia with my account since 2007. Thus, in addition to being familiar with the policies here, I have the sources, experience, AND credentials (not the it matters) to carefully read and interpret sources. How about you? danielkueh (talk) 06:42, 1 September 2018 (UTC)- Ok, sure. danielkueh (talk) 07:35, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- Thank you. Khirurg (talk) 17:13, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- Hi folks. Danielkueh, I don't agree to your change above. I believe "naturalistic" better be reversed back to "rational". Terms such as the "first" and the "best" are dubious and not encyclopedic terms, but this is another matter. Among others, the Hindu philosopher Uddalaka is considered both the first-known naturalist and atomist. For example, in: (Birx, H. James (2005). Encyclopedia of Anthropology: FIVE-VOLUME SET. SAGE Publications. p. 2159. ISBN 9781506320038.
A credible case can be made for Uddalaka as the first recorded naturalist...Uddalaka provided the first versions of a monistic universe, atomistic physics
--Ramadut (talk) 19:01, 1 September 2018 (UTC)- @Ramadut What if 'materialist' conception of nature rather than "rationalist conception of nature" were the phrase? Would this be compatible with your source? --Ancheta Wis (talk | contribs) 19:30, 1 September 2018 (UTC) Upon reading your source, I submit that 'materialist' would also work as the adjective, as Uddalaka preceded the Charvaka school which is materialist etc. Both they and Uddalaka are certainly compatible with Epicurus as well. Francis Crick was a materialist, by the way; he insisted that DNA have a molecular basis during his investigations with Watson. For the encyclopedia, Uddalaka's role in Atomism#Indian_atomism would be strengthened by a citation unifying his identification as Aruni, which is the name in the Aruni article. Might you provide a citation identifying Uddalaka as Aruni? --Ancheta Wis (talk | contribs) 20:10, 1 September 2018 (UTC) Oh my, I found a citation from the Mahabharata: Mahabharata (MBh 1.3) Now we need a scholarly source ! Not to imply that the 6 schools of Indian philosophy are not scholarly, but we also could use something from SEP or the like, a university perhaps. --20:22, 1 September 2018 (UTC) I found one: Uddalaka is Aruni: p.180 in Sociological Bulletin Vol. 1, No. 2 (1952) — G. S. Ghurye Ascetic Origins Sociological Bulletin Vol. 1, No. 2 (1952), pp. 162-184 JSTOR login required --20:41, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- Ramadut, could you please add the citation unifying his identification as Uddalaka to the Aruni article. I am assuming you have JSTOR access. Ancheta Wis (talk | contribs) 21:00, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- Materialist seems better than naturalist. Sure, I can add the reference, but I don't have JSTOR access, unfortunately. Here another source explaining how Uddalaka adopted the name Aruni. Anyway there are sources claiming Aruni was different on some instances. For example, in the critical and cultural study of the Śātapatha Brāhmaṇam by Satya Prakash it is said "Aruni said, His Agnihotra-cow, assuredly, is the sky. her calf is that blowing (wind), and the Agnihotra-vessel is this (earth (XII. 4.1.11.) Uddalaka Aruni is a figure obviously different from Aruni described above." The son of Uddalaka Aruni was called Svetaketu Aruni. --Ramadut (talk) 21:32, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- Hi folks. Danielkueh, I don't agree to your change above. I believe "naturalistic" better be reversed back to "rational". Terms such as the "first" and the "best" are dubious and not encyclopedic terms, but this is another matter. Among others, the Hindu philosopher Uddalaka is considered both the first-known naturalist and atomist. For example, in: (Birx, H. James (2005). Encyclopedia of Anthropology: FIVE-VOLUME SET. SAGE Publications. p. 2159. ISBN 9781506320038.
- Thank you. Khirurg (talk) 17:13, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- I did read both sources. And I see very little evidence of any sort of naturalistic explanations of the world in both Egyptian and Mesopotamian "science". Specifically page 3 in Grant "Egyptians and Mesopotamians viewed the world as a place where magic was essential for survival. It was used to explain virtually all the phenomena we would regard as natural." You are nitpicking and reading way too much into passages that are vague (e.g. the "interplay" sentence). Based on these sources, it is not inaccurate to say "the first naturalistic explanations of the world appear in 600 BC". As for moving targets, I would like to remind you that at first you were fine with "naturalistic" but now insist on "entirely naturalistic". Khirurg (talk) 05:49, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
Comment: Rationalism is not acceptable for reasons already mentioned above. Materialism, like non-supernatural, doesn’t faithfully convey the main point made by the sources, which is that the pre-Socratics attempted to explain how the world works based exclusively on natural causes. Lindberg described that approach as naturalistic. So it is not a fringe view. But if there is still preferance for words related to materialism, then the correct term you’re looking for is material monism. But for some, that might be too wordy. And if no one likes the word “first,” then by all means, delete it. danielkueh (talk) 23:46, 1 September 2018 (UTC)
- I disagree with your latest edit, both in terms of the nature of the edit, and also because of verbosity, but added "recorded" as a way to soften it without compromising the sources. Hope you are ok with that. Khirurg (talk) 01:06, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- It's disputed by the Encyclopedia of Anthropology mentioned above. Even the naturalism page doesn't make that claim. Grant describes it as a "monumental change" and Lindberg uses the phrase, "new and powerful alternative." But I don't recall them stating that it was the "first recorded." danielkueh (talk) 01:12, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- Materialism, rationalism, naturalism, are all modern concepts from the last few centuries (mainly 18th and 19th centuries). So these terms are not useful because they are not historical. Grant and Lindberg do not use such wording and such anachronistic terms should not be in the article. Natural and philosophy are the only terms in the ancient world in common usage. The claim of "first recorded" is also very problematic because no one really knows when the first recordings for any particular topic were made. We only have very few sources that even survive the archaeological record and what historians say is the first (if they even say this), is the first one they have found, not a true first record. It is certainly reasonable to say that Mesopotamian and Egyptians tried to explain things as they saw fit and that they did not live in a world where "nature" (as a thing like "reality") existed. There was no materialism, rationalism, naturalism, or other types of modern terms in the ancient world or the medieval world for that matter. Huitzilopochtli1990 (talk) 01:36, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- It's disputed by the Encyclopedia of Anthropology mentioned above. Even the naturalism page doesn't make that claim. Grant describes it as a "monumental change" and Lindberg uses the phrase, "new and powerful alternative." But I don't recall them stating that it was the "first recorded." danielkueh (talk) 01:12, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- I disagree with your latest edit, both in terms of the nature of the edit, and also because of verbosity, but added "recorded" as a way to soften it without compromising the sources. Hope you are ok with that. Khirurg (talk) 01:06, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- Furthermore, the term supernatural was first used in the 1500s not the ancient world supernatural. There is an excellent academic text on the emergence of the concept "The Natural and the Supernatural in the Middle Ages" by Robert Bartlett by the way. The whole construct of supernatural is modern, not ancient. Huitzilopochtli1990 (talk) 01:44, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- @Ramos1990:, thanks for the input. Yes, "anachronism" was the term I've been thinking of all day but just couldn't recall. Anyway, the second part of the second sentence, "whereby attempts were made to explain events of nature based on natural causes" may come across as a little clumsy. So if you have suggestions on how to phrase it more elegantly, please share. danielkueh (talk) 01:50, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- No problem Danielkueh. Maybe you can reworded your phrase to "whereby formal attempts were made to explain events of physical world based on physical causes". I know that the Greeks used the words physis and cosmos for the "world", "universe". Natura was used by the Romans and it meant the behavior of a thing or creature as in "the nature of a dog". I am thinking of Pliny the Elder's "Natural History". Huitzilopochtli1990 (talk) 02:00, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- Thanks, @Ramos1990:. I like that a lot better. But for the sake of prose, perhaps we can be a little more flexible when it comes to natural and physical? Plus, the sources do use them interchangeably, so we won't have to worry about committing an error of synthesis. How about this slight modification with wikilinks and all? "...whereby formal attempts were made to explain events of the physical world based on natural causes." danielkueh (talk) 02:11, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- "Physical world based on physical causes" is still clunky. And it should be "Where" instead of "Whereby" (or maybe "wherein"). Also, new source Thales is the first person about whom we know to propose explanations of natural phenomena which were materialistic rather than mythological or theological.. Hence why I had added "first recorded", although perhaps "first known" would be better. Khirurg (talk) 02:26, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- Thanks, @Ramos1990:. I like that a lot better. But for the sake of prose, perhaps we can be a little more flexible when it comes to natural and physical? Plus, the sources do use them interchangeably, so we won't have to worry about committing an error of synthesis. How about this slight modification with wikilinks and all? "...whereby formal attempts were made to explain events of the physical world based on natural causes." danielkueh (talk) 02:11, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- No problem Danielkueh. Maybe you can reworded your phrase to "whereby formal attempts were made to explain events of physical world based on physical causes". I know that the Greeks used the words physis and cosmos for the "world", "universe". Natura was used by the Romans and it meant the behavior of a thing or creature as in "the nature of a dog". I am thinking of Pliny the Elder's "Natural History". Huitzilopochtli1990 (talk) 02:00, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- @Ramos1990:, thanks for the input. Yes, "anachronism" was the term I've been thinking of all day but just couldn't recall. Anyway, the second part of the second sentence, "whereby attempts were made to explain events of nature based on natural causes" may come across as a little clumsy. So if you have suggestions on how to phrase it more elegantly, please share. danielkueh (talk) 01:50, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- Furthermore, the term supernatural was first used in the 1500s not the ancient world supernatural. There is an excellent academic text on the emergence of the concept "The Natural and the Supernatural in the Middle Ages" by Robert Bartlett by the way. The whole construct of supernatural is modern, not ancient. Huitzilopochtli1990 (talk) 01:44, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
It would be helpful to look up the terms. From Merriam-Webster's:
- Whereby: by, through, or in accordance with which []
- Where: at, in, or to what place where is the house where are we going []
- Wherein: : in what : in what particular or respect wherein was I wrong []
As for the *new* source, I'm curious about the way it's phrased: "Thales is the first person about whom we know to propose...." Does O'Grady mean "Thales is the first person whom we know about to do XYZ" or does she mean "We know Thales is the first person to do XYZ?" A subtle but important distinction. I suspect she meant the former. danielkueh (talk) 02:44, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- Very simple. O'Grady basically says "Thales is the first person that we know of who did X, Y, and Z". "About to do X, Y, Z" is odd because Thales is in the past. Khirurg (talk) 03:10, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- No. "About whom we know" is another way of saying "what we know about her (or him) is..." Look at the same page where she uses the same phrase in another sentence, "There must have been any number of people who visited foreign lands, about whom we know nothing." Meaning? We don't know anything about them. danielkueh (talk) 03:21, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- So then, what we know about Thales is that he proposed X, Y, Z. But she also says "first". In other words, there may have been others that proposed X, Y, Z, but we know nothing about them, therefore Thales is the first person that we know of who proposed X, Y, Z. Otherwise how do you interpret "first". Khirurg (talk) 03:43, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- If she had used commas to qualify "about whom we know" as a parenthetical expression, then you might have a point. But she didn't. All she said was that Thales was the first person we know about who proposed XYZ. That doesn't mean she is stating he is the first. Suppose I've never met anyone who sells hot dogs. Then one day you came by and sold me one. To use O'Grady's expression, "you are the first about whom I know to sell hot dogs." Does that mean you are the first person ever to sell hot dogs? No. It just means you're the first hot dog seller I know about. danielkueh (talk) 04:03, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- Oh come on. O'Grady is not talking about herself, she is talking about the scientific community (i.e. all of us). By your hot dog analogy, Thales is the first that we know about, i.e. the first known, same thing. Speaking of hot dogs, you made me hungry now. Khirurg (talk) 04:10, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- Oh, I am well aware that she is referring to an academic community that knows about Thales first. We, me, us, it doesn't matter. Just because she didn't mention anybody else other than Thales in an article about Thales doesn't mean we can infer from her statement that Thales is first. Absence of evidence is not evidence of absence. danielkueh (talk) 04:17, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- Obviously not the "first", but the "first that we know of". Khirurg (talk) 04:33, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- Not "of." "About." First person whom we know "about." Hence, she could have said, "we know about him first, we know about her second, we know about them third, etc." But she didn't. And that's fine. Still doesn't prove anything. danielkueh (talk) 04:46, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- Obviously not the "first", but the "first that we know of". Khirurg (talk) 04:33, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- Oh, I am well aware that she is referring to an academic community that knows about Thales first. We, me, us, it doesn't matter. Just because she didn't mention anybody else other than Thales in an article about Thales doesn't mean we can infer from her statement that Thales is first. Absence of evidence is not evidence of absence. danielkueh (talk) 04:17, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- Oh come on. O'Grady is not talking about herself, she is talking about the scientific community (i.e. all of us). By your hot dog analogy, Thales is the first that we know about, i.e. the first known, same thing. Speaking of hot dogs, you made me hungry now. Khirurg (talk) 04:10, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- If she had used commas to qualify "about whom we know" as a parenthetical expression, then you might have a point. But she didn't. All she said was that Thales was the first person we know about who proposed XYZ. That doesn't mean she is stating he is the first. Suppose I've never met anyone who sells hot dogs. Then one day you came by and sold me one. To use O'Grady's expression, "you are the first about whom I know to sell hot dogs." Does that mean you are the first person ever to sell hot dogs? No. It just means you're the first hot dog seller I know about. danielkueh (talk) 04:03, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- So then, what we know about Thales is that he proposed X, Y, Z. But she also says "first". In other words, there may have been others that proposed X, Y, Z, but we know nothing about them, therefore Thales is the first person that we know of who proposed X, Y, Z. Otherwise how do you interpret "first". Khirurg (talk) 03:43, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- No. "About whom we know" is another way of saying "what we know about her (or him) is..." Look at the same page where she uses the same phrase in another sentence, "There must have been any number of people who visited foreign lands, about whom we know nothing." Meaning? We don't know anything about them. danielkueh (talk) 03:21, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- Another source "...despite the achievements of the Near Easter peoples...it would be reasonable to argue that Thales was the first philosopher scientist" . Khirurg (talk) 03:12, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- Ok, before I start verifying every other source that gets pushed my way, I would like to understand the rationale for the need to proclaim "first-recorded" or something similar in the lead of a science article. Because in terms of content, it really doesn't add much. We have already specified the timeline, and by association the geography, when we mentioned "Classical Antiquity." Plus, there is no support from the other editors. Grant, Lindberg, O'Grady (see my response on her grammar), and the Encyclopedia published by Sage (a reputable publishing company) don't make that claim. So why should we? danielkueh (talk) 03:36, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- Will respond to both here. Hi Danielkueh, the reword you proposed with wikilinks looks fine to me. "Natural" is certainly better and less controversial than materialism or rationalism or other types less anachorisms.
- Sounds good. Thanks! danielkueh (talk) 03:36, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- Hi Khirurg, the new source you proposed does not mention much about science in general for the ancient period. I would be careful since the source is philosophical source rather than a historical source - and we are talking about the history of science (natural philosophy - which is different than philosophy) after all. I do not think that the one line from the IEP is sufficient enough change the stuff in this science article because the author of the Thales article is very anachoristic and focuses on only one person. It is also very philosophical in content. Grant and Lindberg on the other hand focus on a wide variety of natural philosophers and beyond to see how these cultures understood the physical world so these are better sources for that context. I would not use even modern philosophers of science for historical claims like this.
- Very simple. O'Grady basically says "Thales is the first person that we know of who did X, Y, and Z". "About to do X, Y, Z" is odd because Thales is in the past. Khirurg (talk) 03:10, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- G E R Lloyd is a better source, but not much can be said of it. Thales is not the focus of the sentence in the lead that we are trying to reword. Most of the Greeks had all sorts of views with respect to the cosmos and none were purely physical only. Huitzilopochtli1990 (talk) 03:15, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- But look at what else Lloyd says (same paragraph) "Nevertheless there are two important characteristics that do distinguish the speculation of the Milesian philosophers from those of earlier thinkers, whether Greek or non-Greek. First there is what may be described as the discovery of nature...". Khirurg (talk) 03:40, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- I cannot see the context of that last phrase actually is (google book stops the quote where you stopped). But it does not look significant to mention Thales in the lead either way. The so-called "discovery of nature" sounds weird since obviously the physical world was not "discovered" by anyone and people used physics and mathematics and chemistry well before the "speculations" of Thales or "the Milesian philosophers". I assume you want to refer to natural explanations? If such is the case, most of Greek natural philosophy did not have a demarcation between explanations or causes. They did not have categories of natural/supernatural. None of this is useful for the lead since the article is not a science vs superstition page. Huitzilopochtli1990 (talk) 04:34, 2 September 2018 (UTC)
- But look at what else Lloyd says (same paragraph) "Nevertheless there are two important characteristics that do distinguish the speculation of the Milesian philosophers from those of earlier thinkers, whether Greek or non-Greek. First there is what may be described as the discovery of nature...". Khirurg (talk) 03:40, 2 September 2018 (UTC)

