Based on French franc, I gather that since 1800, France has been on the gold standard, using a bimetallic standard where silver was used for small change. Even timeline in the discussion fails to note that. Similarly, the Spanish real page indicates that Spain has been using a fixed gold equivalent for its currency since 1566, when the value of silver was also fixed. Can anyone improve the article, so that a reader could understand how did Newton's bimetallism innovated beyond the Spanish bimetallism, and why was the British pound more of a gold standard than the gold napoleons? As is, it seems the article was written with a British POV.
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