In the section "Cultural arguments":
"They allowed, even encouraged, poor men to marry and produce offspring, which reduced the gap in reproductive success between the rich and poor, thus resulting in the quick spread of monogamous marriage systems in the western world.[57]"
I can't follow the logic of this sentence. Why would reducing the gap in reproductive success between rich/poor result in "the quick spread of monogamous marriage systems in the western world"?
Surely the opposite should result?
Surely, the rich, who had more influence at the time on marriage laws, would not want a system that increased the poor's reproductive success at the expense of their own?
It would seem to me it must have been ANY factor other than a reduced gap between rich/poor in reproductive success that led to the the quick spread of monogamous marriage systems?
--Phytographer (talk) 17:21, 15 March 2022 (UTC)
- I removed this claim, because I could not find anything in the source that actually makes this claim. ParticipantObserver (talk) 21:50, 15 March 2022 (UTC)
- That's how life is ~2026-46241-8 (talk) 19:27, 21 January 2026 (UTC)
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