Talk:Physical determinism
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Common use of Physical Determinism
We should make effort to collate some sources here to determine the most common definition of physical determinism. I am not aware of the broad definition given by the Oxford source; it appears non-standard. Richardbrucebaxter (talk) 04:31, 6 February 2013 (UTC)
- See below. About three sources are provided in original text. Brews ohare (talk) 04:36, 6 February 2013 (UTC)
- I am only seeing one relevant source... Richardbrucebaxter (talk) 04:56, 6 February 2013 (UTC)
- Richard: It appears you have no intention to discuss matters (see below), and present yourself as an authority that need be neither polite nor interested in WP policies regarding edit warring. Can't we aspire to something just a bit more mature? Brews ohare (talk) 06:21, 6 February 2013 (UTC)
- Note the use of this "relevant source" is in fact questionable, it is ambiguous: "all physical events are determined to occur according to physical laws" (p84). Out of context, this could either mean that 'physical events occur according to physical law' (like you have interpreted), or that 'physical events are determined, in accordance with physical law'. Based on its context however (the following sections are titled "Physical Determinism" and "Indeterminism"), I presume it is referring to the latter. The source certainly does not support the original claim... Richardbrucebaxter (talk) 15:01, 6 February 2013 (UTC)
- Richard: There are several sources to be referred to here. One is Bishop:
"My primary focus will be upon physical determinism, the thesis that all physical events are determined to occur according to physical laws"
— Robert C Bishop, Chaos, indeterminism and free will, Chapter 4 in The Oxford Handbook of Free Will: Second Edition, p. 84
- This has been discussed above. Richardbrucebaxter (talk) 23:09, 6 February 2013 (UTC)
- It has: you have made the hairsplitting remark that you can't tell if his work means 'physical events occur according to physical law' or 'physical events are determined, in accordance with physical law', a distinction without a difference. Brews ohare (talk) 07:07, 7 February 2013 (UTC)
- It is evident the statement is ambiguous, and therefore cannot be used to support the definition of physical determinism you claim it supports: "Physical determinism is a position in philosophy that holds that all physical events occur as described by physical laws". Richardbrucebaxter (talk) 09:45, 7 February 2013 (UTC)
- It has: you have made the hairsplitting remark that you can't tell if his work means 'physical events occur according to physical law' or 'physical events are determined, in accordance with physical law', a distinction without a difference. Brews ohare (talk) 07:07, 7 February 2013 (UTC)
- There is no doubt at all about his position here as he goes on to say:
"Physical determinism might be a concept only relevant to the mathematical models of physics and other physical sciences, although its relevance to the world of everyday choice and action is questionable...if thoughts, feelings, and desires are not physical events, it is unlikely that physical theories are appropriate models for thinking about such nonphysical events."
— Robert C. Bishop, Chaos, indeterminism, and free will, p. 84
- The fact physical determinism may not be relevant to non-physical events, does not change (or propose) a definition of physical determinism. An alternative definition is not discussed in the article. The reference certainly does not imply your interpretation of the definition. Richardbrucebaxter (talk) 23:09, 6 February 2013 (UTC)
- I don't know which point you are discussing here. My point is that the usage of physical determinism, proposed by Ginet and by Bishop, makes it distinct from nomological determinism. I think you are changing the subject. Brews ohare (talk) 07:07, 7 February 2013 (UTC)
- See my final point below. There may well be another non-standard use of physical determinism that does not imply nomological determinism - but it is non-standard. The quotation however is not proposing this, it is just stating the obvious, ie, that physical determinism may not be relevant to non-physical events. The quotation is not necessarily implying that physical determinism can have loop holes and still be considered physical determinism. As I mentioned in my last edit note, find a reference to support this, and I will be happy to include it. Richardbrucebaxter (talk) 09:45, 7 February 2013 (UTC)
- I don't know which point you are discussing here. My point is that the usage of physical determinism, proposed by Ginet and by Bishop, makes it distinct from nomological determinism. I think you are changing the subject. Brews ohare (talk) 07:07, 7 February 2013 (UTC)
- In his further discussion Bishop argues at length that the sort of determinism actually found in physical law is not that proposed by nomological determinism:
"Not only are our current best physical theories remarkably unclear about the truth of determinism in the physical sciences, there is a further significant issue regarding their application to metaphysical questions about our world..."
— Robert C. Bishop, op. cit., p. 94
"The contemporary developments in determinism and physical theories surveyed in this essay indicate that the existence of pockets of determinism in physics do not imply that determinism holds sway over all domains of physics. Furthermore, our physical theories are unreliable guides to the ultimate metaphysical character of our world."
— Robert C Bishop, op. cit., p. 96
- The fact physical determinism may be false, does not lead us to change its definition. Richardbrucebaxter (talk) 23:09, 6 February 2013 (UTC)
- Again, that is not the point being made here: the point being made is that defining physical determinism as having physical events follow physical laws is distinct from nomological determinism. Brews ohare (talk) 07:07, 7 February 2013 (UTC)
- These quotations are not arguing a particular definition of physical determinism, they are arguing against the existence of physical determinism. If deterministic physical law does not hold, then physical determinism does not hold. Richardbrucebaxter (talk)
- Again, that is not the point being made here: the point being made is that defining physical determinism as having physical events follow physical laws is distinct from nomological determinism. Brews ohare (talk) 07:07, 7 February 2013 (UTC)
- Although Bishop's notion of physical determinism is more strict than that of Nagel or Ginet, there isn't any doubt that he distinguishes physical determinism from the complete determinism of everything that happens, as described by nomological determinism.
- I am not convinced with respect to this: the chapter discusses "physical determinism" then "indeterminism", and they are both positions on the physical universe as a whole. If you could find a reference to back this up I would be interested. As the case is at present, over 50% of the sources discuss everything that happens, and it is implied by the rest of them. Richardbrucebaxter (talk) 23:09, 6 February 2013 (UTC)
- If you would explain more exactly what "this" is that you want a reference for, maybe I could help. Brews ohare (talk) 07:07, 7 February 2013 (UTC)
- My comment is referring to physical determinism being defined with respect to a physical subsystem (ie, not everything) - a claim which I haven't yet seen a reference to back up. Again, if you manage to find one, then I will of course be happy to have it included. Richardbrucebaxter (talk) 09:45, 7 February 2013 (UTC)
- If you would explain more exactly what "this" is that you want a reference for, maybe I could help. Brews ohare (talk) 07:07, 7 February 2013 (UTC)
- I am not convinced with respect to this: the chapter discusses "physical determinism" then "indeterminism", and they are both positions on the physical universe as a whole. If you could find a reference to back this up I would be interested. As the case is at present, over 50% of the sources discuss everything that happens, and it is implied by the rest of them. Richardbrucebaxter (talk) 23:09, 6 February 2013 (UTC)
- Another source is Ginet (italics in original text):
A complete description of the physical state of the world at any given time and a complete statement of the physical laws of nature entail every truth as to what physical events happen after that time
— Carl Ginet, On Action, p.92
- Again, there is no doubt that the author draws a distinction here because the same wording without the insertion of "physical" is said to refer to hard determinism. You will notice the use of the verb "entail" here.
- The original text of Physical determinism contains this paragraph:
Sometimes the restrictions to physical events and physical laws are ignored, and physical determinism is used as a synonym for nomological determinism, that all future events are governed by the past or present according to all-encompassing deterministic laws.[3] However, in this article this practice is avoided.
- Reference [3] is Steven W Horst (2011). Laws, Mind, and Free Will. MIT Press. p. 98. ISBN 0262015250.
- In my opinion this paragraph and this source provide adequate indication to the reader that the usage you advance is out there, viz the usage that treats physical determinism is the same thing as nomological determinism. Obviously, there is no need to describe nomological determinism further in this article on physical determinism, because nomological determinism has its own article.
- This is perhaps why there was not an article on physical determinism until you made it (and also why so many specific forms of determinism are contained within the one article Determinism). Richardbrucebaxter (talk) 23:09, 6 February 2013 (UTC)
- Richard: Your remark assumes the two concepts are the same, and the whole point of this discussion is that they are different, which differences have been pointed out to you but so far you have not addressed. Brews ohare (talk) 07:07, 7 February 2013 (UTC)
- You haven't provided a single source which provides a clear definition of physical determinism as different from its primary use (implying nomological determinism). There is some speculation in the Oxford Free Will Handbook source that it might be defined differently, and I don't doubt it might well be, but the point is that they are certainly not standard definitions of physical determinism. Oxford itself takes the standard one: hence the two next sections in the source are titled "physical determinism" and "indeterminism". Furthermore, You haven't provided a single source which provides a clear definition of physical determinism as different from its primary use(apart from the one ambiguous definition in the Oxford source). The only source I have seen thus far to support this claim is Popper's commentary (a source which I myself added), and he directly admits this conflicts with the standard definition of physical indeterminism. Richardbrucebaxter (talk) 09:45, 7 February 2013 (UTC)
- Richard: Your remark assumes the two concepts are the same, and the whole point of this discussion is that they are different, which differences have been pointed out to you but so far you have not addressed. Brews ohare (talk) 07:07, 7 February 2013 (UTC)
- This is perhaps why there was not an article on physical determinism until you made it (and also why so many specific forms of determinism are contained within the one article Determinism). Richardbrucebaxter (talk) 23:09, 6 February 2013 (UTC)
- Some other points are raised in the subsection of this Talk page below, and also in the original text. These arguments all are well documented, and your counters are simply your own opinions, pointed to in the paragraph referring to Horst as quoted above.
- Brews ohare (talk) 16:17, 6 February 2013 (UTC)
Richard: You say
- "You haven't provided a single source which provides a clear definition of physical determinism as different from its primary use"
and repeated this statement several times. I find this statement to be a refusal to understand what is written by Bishop and Ginet. It doesn't help that in your discussion you interchange the two types of determinism at will, as if they are synonyms, when their distinction is necessary for this conversation.
You also wish to discount Bishop's two articles in the Oxford Handbook of Free Will as an "ambiguous definition" despite pages-long accompanying text that removes any possibility of ambiguity: physical determinism is used as a term distinguished from nomological determinism. Period. You also wish to marginalize this difference (even though you refuse to recognize it) by suggesting the question is one of "standard usage", which is a red herring. The usage making no distinction between physical and nomological determinism does occur, and maybe a count would show it has been used that way more often than not, but there is room for a usage that distinguishes the two, as the literature shows, and the adjective physical in physical determinism usefully describes its position.
To illustrate what I consider to be a complete non-sequitor in your presentation, you cite Ginet's definition: "physical determinism holds that a complete description of the physical state of the world at any given time and a complete statement of the physical laws of nature together entail every truth as to what physical events happen after that time", and include the italics he introduced to point up the stress on physical. Then you ignore entirely the fact that in the text preceding this definition he uses the same wording without the word physical to define nomological determinism and proceeds to contrast the two definitions. You then conclude:
- "Such a position implies nomological determinism"
This statement is completely opposite to the position explained at length by Ginet, and further argued by Bishop. It also makes no sense on the face of it because the italicized physical in the definition sits there unexplained by your wrong conclusion.
How can you construe these authors so far from their meaning? Perhaps you are so swayed by a belief in causal closure as to think everything falls within physical laws? And additionally that physical laws are well described by the presumptions about them assumed by nomological determinism? Those beliefs can be argued, but they are not universally held. Hence the distinction. Brews ohare (talk) 16:04, 7 February 2013 (UTC)
Comparison of nomological and physical determinism
Physical determinism is a position in philosophy that holds that all physical events occur as described by physical laws.[1] Nomological determinism is the notion that the past and the present dictate the future entirely and necessarily by rigid, all-encompassing natural laws, that every occurrence results inevitably from prior events.[2]
The two terms become synonymous only if one assumes (i) all events are physical events, including of course, acts of imagination or creation of art, science, and so forth, and (ii) makes some assumptions about the nature of physical laws that are seldom held today.
The importance of the distinction is pointed out by Bishop. These definitions leave open just what "physical" might include. So, for example, one could limit the scope of physical determinism as:
"Physical determinism might be a concept only relevant to the mathematical models of physics and other physical sciences, although its relevance to the world of everyday choice and action is questionable...if thoughts, feelings, and desires are not physical events, it is unlikely that physical theories are appropriate models for thinking about such nonphysical events."
— Robert C. Bishop, Chaos, indeterminism, and free will, p. 84
As for the nature of determinism in physical law, which differs from the assumptions of nomological determinism, we have the view of Nagel:
"a theory is deterministic if, and only if, given its state variables for some initial period, the theory logically determines a unique set of values for those variables for any other period."[3]
— Ernest Nagel, Alternative descriptions of physical state p. 292
Sources
[1] Robert C Bishop, Harald Atmanspacher (2011). "Chapter 5: The causal closure of physics and free will". In Robert Kane, ed (ed.). The Oxford Handbook of Free Will: Second Edition (2nd ed.). Oxford University Press. p. 101. ISBN 0195399692. {{cite book}}: |editor= has generic name (help)
[2] Steven W Horst (2011). Laws, Mind, and Free Will. MIT Press. p. 98. ISBN 0262015250.
[3] Ernest Nagel (1999). "§V: Alternative descriptions of physical state". The Structure of Science: Problems in the Logic of Scientific Explanation (2nd ed.). Hackett. pp. 285–292. ISBN 0915144719.
- Brews ohare (talk) 04:32, 6 February 2013 (UTC)
Recent changes by Richardbrucebaxter
Richard: Your recent changes require further discussion, and appear to be patently incorrect in some respects. In particular, the notion that physical determinism implies nomological determinism is contrary to much of the literature on this subject (cited in the article and on this Talk page), and has been discussed in a section of this Talk page that you have not addressed, and apparently not read. Please make an effort to compare your views on this talk page with the literature and with the comments already presented here.
Your view that Popper's work like his three worlds should not be presented on WP appears to be a prejudice on your part. In any event, the points made in the section on Popper's work can be made using other philosopher's as well, and some such formulation could be worked out here if you were inclined to participate on the Talk page. Brews ohare (talk) 06:53, 7 February 2013 (UTC)
You have reinstituted your beliefs in the revisions here, here, and here, which amount to cramming nomological determinism down our throats, a violation of logic and of NPOV. Brews ohare (talk) 16:22, 7 February 2013 (UTC)
