"In 1280, following the Disputation of Barcelona, the Roman Catholic Church forced Jews to censor parts of the Talmud that were theologically problematic. The Talmud was censored again in 1564 following the invention of the printing press. Numerous times between 1239 and 1775, all copies of the Talmud were ordered destroyed; few survived."
Given that many - if not the majority - of the Jews lived in Islamic regions during that time, how could such censorship by the Catholic church have been effective? This seems quite illogical. -- 89.182.217.13 (talk) 10:30, 17 August 2015 (UTC)